Factual ignorance can work as a moral excuse: if Susie spoons cyanide into Jane’s coffee but thinks she is spooning sugar, then Susie may be blameless for poisoning Jane.
When exactly does factual ignorance works as a moral excuse? Can moral ignorance also work as an excuse? If one does not believe that one’s action is wrong, and one has not mismanaged one’s beliefs, is one then blameless for acting wrongly?
Factual ignorance refers to a person who has not acquired knowledge of a matter and has no concepts or ideas about it. It can be used as a moral excuse in this situation. Both the objectionable attitudes and reasonable expectation principles can be used to explain. However, I think the reasonable expectation principle better explains why factual ignorance can be used as a moral excuse. We cannot expect a person to have actual knowledge because people always lack information in the world, and people will more or less passively ignore some things. However, when people do bad things out of ignorance, they should not escape because what they do harms others. We should try to gain forgiveness from others.
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